SBI PO Prelims 2021 Mock Test for Practice Check here |

MOCK TEST

Directions (1 – 4): Study the following arrangement carefully and answer the question given below.

P S U 3 G D 6 Q F 5 = A 1 H B 7 I 9 T M 8 # E J 2 * R 4 W

1. Which of the following is the fifth to the right of the fifteenth from the right end?

a) 8

b) T

c) #

d) M

e) None of the above

2. If order of the last eleven elements is reversed, which of the following will be seventh to the right of ninth from the left end?

a) B

b) 7

c) I

d) H

e) None of the above

3. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way on the basis of the above arrangement and hence form a group. Which one does not belong to that group?

a) P U G

b) = 1 B

c) Q = H

d) I T 8

e) None of the above

4. If the position of 6 and 2 are interchanged and similarly the position of U and R are interchanged then how many symbols will be there each of which is either preceded or followed by a vowel?

a) 1

b) 2

c) 3

d) 4

e) None of the above

Salary and Allowances of SBI PO

Directions (5 – 6): Some groups of letters are given, all of which, except one, share a common similarity while one is different. Choose the odd one out.
5.

a) Flower: Petal

b) Triangle  : Angle

c) Cover : Page

d) Table : Leg

e) None of the above

6.

a) Ostrich

b) Penguin

c) Emu

d) Owl

e) None of the above

Directions (7 – 11): In the following questions, the symbols @, ©, %, δ and # are used with the following meaning as illustrated below.

‘A % B’ means ‘A is not greater than B’.

‘A δ B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor smaller than B’.

‘A # B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor equal to B’.

‘A © B’ means ‘A is not smaller than B’.

‘A @ B’ means ‘A is neither smaller than nor equal to B’.

Now, in each of the following questions assuming the given statements to be true, find which of the two Conclusions I and II given below them is/are definitely true?
Give answer

a) If only Conclusion I is true

b) If only Conclusion II is true

c) If either Conclusion I or II is true

d) If neither Conclusion I nor II is true

e) If both Conclusion I and II are true

7. Statements: P © T, T @ M, M δ C

Conclusions:

I. C # T

II. M # T

8. Statements: Q @ N, N % R, R © E

Conclusions:

I. Q @ E

II. N # E

9. Statements: F # T, T @ R, R © G

Conclusions:

I. G # F

II. G # T

10. Statements: M δ H, H % F, F # R

Conclusions:

I. F © M

II. R © H

11. Statements: X @ G, N © G, N % Y

Conclusions:

I. X @ N

II. Y © G

Direction (12 – 16): Read the following information carefully and answer these questions:
In a certain coding system,

• ‘816321’ means ‘the big lion scared the rat’;

• ‘64851’ means ‘the scared rat ran away’;

• ‘7621’ means ‘the rat was big’;

• ‘341’ means ‘the lion ran’

12. What is the code for ‘the lion was scared’?

a) 8763

b) 8731

c) 8453

d) 8463

e) None of the above

13. What is the code for ‘big’?

a) 1

b) 3

c) 4

d) 2

e) None of the above

14. What is the code for ‘away’?

a) 6

b) 7

c) 5

d) 2

e) None of the above

15. What is the code for ‘ran’?

a) 6

b) 3

c) 1

d) 4

e) None of the above

16. What is the code for ‘rat’?

a) 5

b) 6

c) 4

d) 3

e) None of the above

17. Ravi told Ram, “yesterday I defeated the only brother of the daughter of my grandmother”. Whom did Ravi defeat?

a) Father

b) Brother

c) Son

d) Father –in –law

Answer: a)

Explanation:  Daughter of grandmother –aunt, aunt’s only brother—father.

Directions (18 – 22): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are sitting around a circle facing the centre but not necessarily in the same order.

• B sits second to the left of H’s husband. No female is an immediate neighbour of B.

• D’s daughter sits second to the right of F. F is the sister of G. F is not an immediate neighbour of H’s husband.

• Only one person sits between A and F. A is father of G.

• H’s brother D sits on the immediate left of H’s mother.

• Only one person sits between H’s mother and E.

• Only one person sits between H and G. G is the mother of C. G is not an immediate neighbour of E.

18. What is the position of A with respect to his mother-in-law?

a) Immediate left

b) Third to the right

c) Third to the left

d) Second to the right

e) Fourth to the left

Answer: d)

Explanation:  B is mother-in-law of A. Hence, A’s position with respect to his mother-in-law is second to the right.

19. Who amongst the following is D’s daughter?

a) B

b) C

c) E

d) G

e) H

20. What is the position of A with respect to his grandchild?

a) Immediate right

b) Third to the right

c) Third to the left

d) Second to the left

e) Fourth to the left

21. How many people sit between G and her uncle?

a) One

b) Two

c) Three

d) Four

e) More than four

22. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based on the given information and so form a group. Which is the one that does not belong to that group?

a) F

b) C

c) E

d) H

e) G

SBI PO Syllabus 2021: Detailed Syllabus for Prelims & Mains Exam

Directions (23 – 26): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Eight friends J, K, L, M, N, P, R and S like  different movies  – A , B, C, D, E, F, G and H. All of them are seated around a square table (two on each side) facing the centre. L sits third to the right of K. K likes C. R is sitting second to the left of P. P is not an immediate neighbor of L or K .The one who likes A in an immediate neighbor of P. Three people sit between K and the person who likes F. K, L and also their immediate neighbor do not like D. Only one person sits between the person who likes D and M. The persons who like E and H are immediate neighbor of each other. L likes neither H nor E. Only one person sits between J and the person who likes B. J does not like D or E. N does not like D.

23. Which of the following is true regarding R?

a) R like the B

b) S and M are immediate neighbors of R

c) One person sits between R and J

d) R sits second to the right of J

e) None of the above

24. Who amongst the following likes movie E?

a) L

b) R

c) M

d) N

e) Cannot be determined

25. How many person sit between S and the person who likes H, when counted from the left hand side of the person who likes H?

a) None

b) One

c) Two

d) Three

e) Four

26. Which of the following is true?

a) Only one person is sitting between P and J

b) S likes D brand.

c) The person who likes E is an immediate neighbor of K.

d) One person sits between K and S.

e) None is true

27. Two cars start from the opposite points of a main road, 200 kms apart. The first car runs for 35 kms and takes a right turn and then runs for 20 kms. It then turns left and runs for another 25 kms and takes the direction back to reach the main road. In the meanwhile, due to a minor breakdown, the other car has run only 45 kms along the main road. What would be the distance between the two cars at this point?

a) 105 kms

b) 100 kms

c) 95 kms

d) None of these

e) Can’t be determined

28. In a row of boys, Shekhar and Prabhat occupy the ninth place from the right end and tenth place from the left end, respectively. If they interchange their places, then Shekhar and Prabhat occupy seventeenth place from the right and eighteenth place from the left respectively. How many boys are there in the row?

a) 22

b) 24

c) 26

d) 28

e) None of the above

29. In the following letter series, some of the letters are missing which are given in that order as one of the alternatives below it. Choose the correct alternative.

_ baa _ aa _ aab _

a) baba

b) bbab

c) aabb

d) abba

e) None of the above

Directions (30 – 33): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below:

Eight professionals, numbered 1 to 8 not in the same order, work for three different organisations namely X, Y, and Z. Not more than three persons work for an organization. There are two ladies in the group with different specializations and do not work for the same organization. Among the others, two have specialization each in IT, Finance and Sales. One is an engineer and another is a lawyer. Person 8 is an IT specialist and works with 2 who is a Sales specialist not for organization Y. 3 is an engineer and his sister works in organization Z as a Finance specialist. 4 is an IT specialist working in organization X while her friend 7 is a Finance specialist for organization Z. No two similarly specialized people work together. Sales specialist 6 works for organization Y and his friend 1, a Finance expert works for organization X in which only two specialists work. No lady is a Sales Specialist or a lawyer.

30. Which among the following person is not a male?

a) 2

b) 4

c) 6

d) 8

e) Cannot be determined

31. Who among the following is a lawyer?

a) 3

b) 4

c) 5

d) 6

e) None of the above

32. Which of the following combination is true?

a) 3 works in Z as an Engineer

b) 3 works in Y as an Engineer

c) 5 works in X as a Lawyer

d) 8 works in X as a IT

e) None of the above

33. Which among the following pair are sales professionals?

a) 2 and 6

b) 2 and 4

c) 3 and 5

d) 6 and 3

e) None of the above

Directions (34 – 35): In each question below are given some statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem to be at variance with commonly known facts. Read both the statements and then decide which of the given conclusions logically follows from the given statements, disregarding commonly known facts.

Give answers:

Give answer (a) if only conclusion I is true.

Give answer (b) if only conclusion II is true.

Give answer (c) if either conclusion I or II is true.

Give answer (d) if neither conclusion I nor II is true.

Give answer (e) if both conclusions I and II is true

34. Statements:

Some red are green.

Some green are yellow.

No yellow is red.

Conclusions:

I. Some green that are yellow are red.

II. Some red that are green are yellow.

35. Statements:

Some wood are plastic.

All plastic are metal.

No metal is stone.

Some stone are wood.

Conclusions:

I. Some wood which are metal are not stone.

II. All plastic which are metal are necessarily wood.

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 Answers with Explanation

1. Answer: d)

Explanation: The fifteenth element from the right end of the arrangement is B, and the fifth element to the right of B is M.

2. Answer: b)

Explanation:  P S U 3 G D 6 Q F 5 = A 1 H B 7 I 2 W 4 R * 2 J E # 8 M T

The ninth element from the left end of this arrangement is F, and the seventh element to the right of F is 7.

3. Answer: c)

Explanation: In all other groups, the first and second elements each move 2 steps forward to give the second and third elements respectively.

4. Answer: c)

Explanation:  Such symbols in the new arrangement may be indicated as follow:

5. Answer: c)

Explanation: In all other pairs, second is a part of the first.

6. Answer: d)

Explanation: Out of the four except owl, all is flightless birds.

7. Answer: e)

Explanation:  Statement- P ≥ T > M =C

Conclusion I- C < T (True)

Conclusion II- M < T (True)

8. Answer: d)

Explanation:  Statement- Q >N ≤ R ≥ E

Conclusion I- Q > E (False)

Conclusion II- N <E (False)

9. Answer: b)

Explanation:  Statement- F <T >R ≥ G

Conclusion I- G <F (false)

Conclusion II- G<T (True)

10. Answer: a)

Explanation:  Statement- M = H ≤ F < R

Conclusion I- F ≥ M (True)

Conclusion II- R ≥ H (false)

11. Answer: b)

Explanation:  Statement- X > G ≤ N ≤ Y

Conclusion I- X > N (false)

Conclusion II- Y ≥ G (True)

12. Answer: b)

13. Answer: d)

14. Answer: c)

15. Answer: d)

16. Answer: b)

Explanation (12 – 16):  By looking at the four statements it can deduced that code for:

1 – the,

6 – rat,

8 – scared

3 – lion

2 – big

4 – ran

5 – away

17. Answer: a)

Explanation:  Daughter of grandmother –aunt, aunt’s only brother—father.

18. Answer: d)

19. Answer: c)

20. Answer: a)

21. Answer: c)

22. Answer: b)

Explanation (18 – 22):

23. Answer: e)

24. Answer: d)

25. Answer: d)

26. Answer: b)

Explanation (23 – 26):

27. Answer: c)

Explanation:

28. Answer: c)

Explanation: Since Shekhar and Prabhat exchange places, so Shekhar’s new position is the same as Prabhat’s earlier position and vice versa. This position is 17th from the right and 10th from the left. Therefore, Number of boys in the row = (16 + 1 + 9) = 26.

29. Answer: d)

Explanation: The series is aba/aba/aba/aba. Thus, the pattern ‘aba’ is repeated.

30. Answer: b)

31. Answer: c)

32. Answer: b)

33. Answer: a)

Explanation (30 – 33):

34. Answer: d)

Explanation:

Directions (1- 5): What approximate value should come in place of question mark in the following questions? (You are not expected to calculate the exact value).

1. (57% of 2442-26% of 2412)÷63= ?

a) 19

b) 12

c) 22

d) 24

e) 31

2. (8576+7286+4639)÷(512+315+312)= ?

a) 18

b) 22

c) 24

d) 10

e) 26

3. 2524.79× 29.92 +495.26= ?

a) 74000

b) 78000

c) 80000

d) 76000

e) 77000

4. 8735.96-4454.03-2612.86=?-1311.43

a) 3170

b) 2780

c) 2980

d) 3080

e) None of the above

5. (42.13)² + (23.96)² – (17.11)²  = ?

a) 2176

b) 2274

c) 2309

d) 2056

e) None of the above

Direction (6 – 10): What will come in place of the question mark in the following number series?

6. 110 111 103 130 66 ?

a) 140

b) 1 35

c) 191

d) 150

e) None of the above

7. 64 128 92 156 148 212 ?

a) 260

b) 280

c) 290

d) 300

e) None of the above

8. 24 14 26 15 28 16 30   ?

a) 14

b) 17

c) 36

d) 16

e) 28

9. 5 6 16 57 244 1245 ?

a) 7406

b) 7516

c) 8257

d) 7248

e) 7506

10. 3  17 113 ? 3361 13441 40321

a) 534

b) 673

c) 6 16

d) 673

e) 713

Directions (11 – 15): In each of these questions, two equations (I) and (II) are given. You have to solve both the equations and give answer:

a) If x>y

b) If x≥y

c) If x<y

d) If x≤y

e) If x=y or no relation can be established between x and y

16. In an examination, 34% of the students failed in mathematics and 42% failed in English. If 20% of the students failed in both the subjects, then find the percentage of students who passed in both the subjects.

a) 40%

b) 41%

c) 43%

d) 44%

e) None of the above

17. Sohan marked his bicycle 50% above his cost price. He Sold is after allowing a discount and still made a profit of 20%. What is the discount percentage he offered of it?

a) 20%

b) 25%

c) 30%

d) 35%

e) None of the above

18. In a certain exam, the ratio of the number of students passed to the number of students failed is 7: 4. Has 8 more students passed, the ratio of the number of students passed to the number of students failed would have been 9: 2. Find the number of students who failed in the exam.

a) 20

b) 16

c) 12

d) 24

e) None of the above

19. It takes 16 hours for a 1200 km journey, if 240 km is done by train and the rest by car. It takes 40 minutes more, if 400 km is done by train and the rest by car. The ratio of the speed of the train to that of the cars is?

a) 2: 3

b) 3: 2

c) 3 : 4

d) 4 : 3

e) None of the above

20. Find the time taken by a train 180 m long, running at 72 kmph, in crossing an electric pole.

a) 8 sec

b) 9 sec

c) 10 sec

d) 12 sec

e) None of the above

21. A project is done by three people X, Y and Z. X alone takes 20 hours to complete a single project but Y and Z working together takes 8 hours, for the completion of the same project. If all of them worked together and completed 28 products, then how many hours have they worked?

a) 140 hours

b) 120 hours

c) 160 hours

d) 180 Hours

e) None of the above

22. Rs.12,500 is borrowed at C.I. rate of 3% for the first year, 4% for the second year and 5% for the third year. The amount to be paid after 3 years will be:

a) Rs. 14590.50

b) Rs. 14509.50

c) Rs. 14059.50

d) Rs. 14950.50

e) None of the above

23. Imran borrowed a sum of money from Jayant at the rate of 8% per annum simple interest for the first four years, 10% per annum for the next six years and 12% per annum for the period beyond 10 years. If he pays a total of Rs.12,160 as interest only at the end of 15 years, how much way did he borrow?

a) Rs.8000

b) Rs.10,000

c) Rs.12,000

d) Rs.9,000

e) None of the above

24. A positive integer is divided by 5. What is the probability that the remainder is not 3?

a) 1/5

b) 4/5

c) 2/5

d) 3/5

e) None of the above

25. How much time will it take to fill the tank if two pipes A and B fill it in 20 hours and 30 hours respectively and both the pipes are opened?

a) 12

b) 15

c) 18

d) 20

e) None of the above

Directions (26 – 30): Study the following graph and answer the following questions:

Number of students from various faculties studying in various Management Institutes (in thousands)

26. What is the ratio of the number of Marketing students in Institute A to the number of Finance students in Institute D?

a) 11:13

b) 13:15

c) 9:7

d) 7:11

e) None of the above

27. What is the average number of students in each faculty of Institute D?

a) 30000

b) 26000

c) 28500

d) 31667

e) None of the above

28. What is the average number of IT students in all the Institutes?

a) 21625

b) 25625

c) 23225

d) 24575

e) None of the above

29. What percentage of the total students of Institute C are its IT students?

a) 36%

b) 27.5%

c) 26.92%

d) 28.13%

e) None of the above

30. What is the difference between the total number of IT and Finance students in all the colleges?

a) 27500

b) 24000

c) 29000

d) 17500

e) None of the above

Directions (31 – 35): Study the following pie-chart and answer the following questions:

31. What percentage of Indian IT Professionals work either in Australia or New Zealand?

a) 12%

b) 2%

c) 14%

d) 26%

e) None of the above

32. What is the ratio of Indian IT Professionals working in Middle East to Australia?

a) 2:1

b) 1:2

c) 3:2

d) 2:3

e) None of the above

33. If the total population of Indian IT Professionals in places other than USA and UK is 19200, then what is the number of Indian IT Professionals working there?

a) 16000

b) 10600

c) 18000

d) 10800

e) None of the above

34. If the Indian IT Professionals working in Europe is to double the next year and the remaining is constant, then what is the percentage of Indian IT Professionals working in Europe to the total Indian IT Professionals population working abroad next year?

a) 12%

b) 18%

c) 9%

d) 14%

e) None of the above

35. If the Indian IT Professionals working in USA and UK triples in the next year, what would be the ratio of their population?

a) 6:7

b) 5:13

c) 13:5

d) 3:5

e) None of the above

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Answers with Explanation

9. Answer: e)

Explanation: Here the series is:

5 × 1 + 1² = 6;

6 × 2 + 2² = 16;

16 × 3 + 3² = 57;

57 × 4 + 4² = 244;

244 × 5 + 5² = 1245;

1245 × 6 + 6² = 7506

10. Answer: b)

Explanation:  Here the series is:

3 × 8 – 7 = 17

17 × 7 – 6 = 113

113 × 6 – 5 = 673

673 × 5 – 4 = 3361

3361 × 4 – 3 = 13441

13441 × 3 – 2 = 40321

Directions (1 – 6): Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
The state of Indian banking prior to 1991 was different from today. Banks made no mention of profits or losses; they did not fix deposit or lending rates. There were no capital adequacy norms, nor rules for bad loans. To open a branch in Gumidippoondi, near Chennai, or sanction a high-value loan, a bank had to wait for months for Reserve Bank of India’s permission. A financial marketplace didn’t exist. RBI dictated the exchange rate, based on what the ruling class and bureaucrats felt it should be. They, and not bankers, also decided who got loans. Bankers did not do banking, others did. That is till C Rangarajan became the RBI governor. Indian public sector banks are still largely in bad shape, but there’s competition and consumers have been able to fund their dream homes and cars through loans. Also, individuals have made fortunes by buying bank stocks in two decades. All thanks to the banking reforms Rangarajan shepherded from 1992 to 1997.

“If you look at Indian reforms, it was all about enabling price discovery,” says Indira Rajaraman, a former member of RBI board. “The discovery of the external price of the rupee was necessary. Without that, you did not know the value of imports or exports. He (Rangarajan) partnered the reform effort to discover prices.” Besides playing an active role in rupee devaluation as deputy governor, Rangarajan laid the foundation for modern Indian banking without having to turn the economy, markets and banks inside out. There was some resistance when he prescribed capital norms and he had to convince stakeholders that this was essential to make the system vibrant and viable.

“The argument that government banks do not have to follow prescribed capital adequacy ratios as (the) public are indifferent to the level of capitalization in a public sector bank does not recognise the fact that banks are commercial entities and not departments of government,” Rangarajan said in a speech in 1997. “He (Rangarajan) laid the foundation for a modern banking system as he recognised that a vibrant and competitive banking system was central to the reforms being undertaken,” says former RBI deputy governor Shyamala Gopinath. “The capital adequacy and prudential norms were phased in over a period with clarity on destination and timelines that made the process sustainable.” Under Rangarajan, private banks came into being. He unleashed the competitive spirit in Indian banking, resulting in the HDFC Banks and ICICIs of today. He was instrumental in ending the government’s abuse of its position by monetizing debt, which had made monetary policy ineffective and undermined RBI’s independence.

1. Which of the following statements is incorrect according to the passage?

a) Prior to 1991 banks made no mention of profits or losses.

b) Prior to 1991 banks did not fix deposit or lending rates.

c) Prior to 1991 banks were not nationalized.

d) Prior to 1991 there were no capital adequacy norms, nor rules for bad loans in banking.

e) None of the above

2. How the exchange rates were decided by RBI before 1991?

a) Influenced by the financial markets.

b) Influenced by the ruling class and bureaucrats.

c) Influenced by the economic environment.

d) Influenced by the bankers.

e) None of the above

3. After C Rangarajan became the RBI governor, what changes were seen in Indian public sector banks?

a) High class people started to dominate the financial markets.

b) Involvement of bureaucrats in banking industry was increased.

c) New Technologies were introduced.

d) Elements of competition and high returns came into existence.

e) None of the above

4. Which of the following were resisted when the then RBI Governor C Rangrajan proposed?

a) Invention of new banking technologies.

b) Introduction of capital adequacy norms.

c) Opening up of banking industry to the foreign investment.

d) Involvement of politically exposed persons in Banking Industry.

e) None of the above

5. What was the major banking reform that took place after 1991?

a) The discovery of the internal role of the RBI Governor.

b) The discovery of the internal price of the rupee.

c) The discovery of the external price of the rupee.

d) The discovery of the external role of the RBI Governor.

e) None of the above

6. Which of the following factor affected the monetary policy and RBI’s autonomy prior to 1991 reforms?

a) Monetization of capital

b) Monetization of assets

c) Monetization of debt

d) Monetization of economy

e) None of the above

Directions (7 – 8): The following questions have a word highlighted from the passage with four words following it. Choose the best word that matches the meaning of the highlighted word as your answer.

7. Prudential

a) Expensive

b) Careless

c) Practical

d) Unreasonable

e) None of the above

8. Unleashed

a) Repressed

b) Released

c) Restrained

d) Constrained

e) None of the above

Directions (9 – 10): The following questions have a word highlighted from the passage with four words following it. Choose the best word that is opposite in meaning to the highlighted word as your answer.

9. Shepherded

a) Marshaled

b) Misguided

c) Leaded

d) Accompanied

e) None of the above

10. Viable

a) Conceivable

b) Probable

c) Feasible

d) Futile

e) None of the above

Directions (11 – 15): Rearrange the following sentences (A), (B), (C), (D) and (E) to make a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions which follow.

(A) Their work has provided economists the tools to understand interactions between entities in a range of fields, such as the design of performance incentives in firms and schools, corporate governance, privatization, constitutional law, and entrepreneur-investor relationships.

(B) Mr. Holmström, in 1979, published a theoretical model and result that significantly enhanced the understanding of risk and incentives in employer-employee relationships.

(C) This was called the informativeness principle, which said performance should be linked to all variables, or outcomes that provide information on the actions taken by an agent, such as a firm’s manager, and not just the outcomes she can affect.

(D) The Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences highlighted that their contributions to understanding “real-life contracts and institutions, as well as the pitfalls when designing new contracts” were crucial.

(E) The work in microeconomic theory for which Oliver Hart and Bengt Holmström have received this year’s Economics Nobel Prize goes back to the 1970s and 1980s when the foundations of contract theory were being firmed up.

11. Which of the following sentence should be the 4th after rearrangement?

a) A

b) E

c) C

d) B

e) D

12. Which of the following sentence should be the 3rd after rearrangement?

a) C

b) E

c) B

d) A

e) D

13. Which of the following sentence should be the 5th (Last) after rearrangement?

a) A

b) C

c) D

d) E

e) B

14. Which of the following sentence should be the 2nd after rearrangement?

a) E

b) B

c) D

d) A

e) C

15. Which of the following sentence should be the 1st after rearrangement?

a) C

b) D

c) E

d) A

e) B

Directions (16 – 20): Each question below has a blank indicating that something has been omitted. Choose the set of words for the blank which best fits the meaning of the sentence as a whole.

16. The Iran nuclear deal shows that even the most complex international issues could be resolved if Russia and the U.S. work together with creative ______________.

a) Fundamentals

b) Artists

c) Diplomacy

d) Behaviors

e) None of the above

17. Public sector Indian Bank has revised its interest rates in the foreign _______________ non-resident banking deposits.

a) Loan

b) Debenture

c) Share

d) Currency

e) None of the above

18. Profitability for the banks will reflect __________ net interest margins (NIMs) and credit costs.

a) Wobbling

b) Stabilizing

c) Releasing

d) Slackening

e) None of the above

19. The Competition Commission of India (CCI) __________ penalty of over Rs 6,700 crore on 10 cement companies.

a) Posed

b) Composed

c) Disposed

d) Imposed

e) None of the above

20. Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) has launched enivaran (electronic resolution) facility for online ____________ of taxpayers’ grievances.

a) Redressal

b) Addressable

c) Rehearsal

d) Damage

e) None of the above

Directions (21 – 25): In the following passage, there are blanks each of which has been numbered. For each number some words are suggested below the passage, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find the appropriate words.

Currently, we have Value-Added Tax (VAT) systems both at the central and state levels. But the central VAT or CENVAT mechanism extends tax set-offs only against central excise duty and service tax paid up to the level of __21__. CENVAT does not extend to value addition by the distributive trade below the stage of __22__; even manufacturers cannot claim set-off against other central taxes such as additional excise duty and surcharge. Likewise, state VATs cover only sales. __23__ can claim credit only against VAT paid on previous purchases. The VAT also does not subsume a host of other taxes imposed within the states such as luxury and entertainment tax, octroi, etc. Once GST comes into effect, all central- and state-level taxes and __24__ on all goods and services will be subsumed within an __25__ tax having two components: a central GST and a state GST.

21. Answer No. 21 blank of the passage:

a) Consumption

b) Plantation

c) Production

d) Reproduction

e) None of the above

22. Answer No. 22 blank of the passage:

a) Inventing

b) Distributing

c) Separating

d) Manufacturing

e) None of the above

23. Answer No. 23 blank of the passage:

a) Intermediaries

b) Sellers

c) Agents

d) Auctioneer

e) None of the above

24. Answer No. 24 blank of the passage:

a) Contributions

b) Burdens

c) Levies

d) Penalties

e) None of the above

25. Answer No. 25 blank of the passage:

a) Illustrated

b) Depreciated

c) Distributed

d) Integrated

e) None of the above

Directions (26 – 30): In each of the following questions there are four parts a, b, c and d, among which one part is erroneous. Find out which part of the sentence has an error and mark ‘e’ if no error is found. Ignore punctuation errors.

26. It is time (a)/ the 2 year old (b)/ is learning how to (c)/ walk and run (d).

27. If you come across (a)/ my book anywhere, (b)/ bring it to me, (c)/ can you? (d)

28. I am tired (a)/ as I am studying (b)/since 6 o’clock (c)/in the morning (d).

29. All over Japan, (a)/ Indian films are (b)/ more popular than those in (c)/ any other country (d).

30. The population growth rate (a)/ has dropped sharply (b)/ this month, though it (c)/ may only be temporary (d).

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Answers with Explanations

1. Answer: c)

Explanation: There is no mention of nationalization of banks in the passage. Hence, option c) is incorrect.

2. Answer: b)

Explanation: It has been clearly stated in the first paragraph that RBI dictated the exchange rate, based on what the ruling class and bureaucrats felt it should be.

3. Answer: d)

Explanation: The first paragraph clearly states that after C Rangarajan became the RBI governor, the Indian public sector banks faced competition and consumers were able to fund their dream homes and cars through loans.

4. Answer: b)

Explanation: The second paragraph clearly states that ‘There was some resistance when he prescribed capital norms and he had to convince stakeholders that this was essential to make the system vibrant and viable’.

5. Answer: c)

Explanation: The second paragraph clearly mentions that the discovery of the external price of the rupee was necessary. Without that, you did not know the value of imports or exports.

6. Answer: c)

Explanation: The last paragraph clearly states that Rangarajan was instrumental in ending the government’s abuse of its position by monetizing debt, which had made monetary policy ineffective and undermined RBI’s independence.

7. Answer: c)

Explanation: Both ‘Prudential’ and ‘Practical’ means involving or showing care and forethought, especially in business.

8. Answer: b)

Explanation: Both ‘Unleashed’ and ‘Released’ means causing a strong or violent force to be released or become unrestrained.

9. Answer: b)

Explanation: Shepherded means to guide or direct in a particular direction and ‘Misguided’ is the exact opposite word.

10. Answer: d)

Explanation: Viable means able to work as intended or able to succeed and ‘Futile’ is the exact opposite word.

11. Answer: d)

12. Answer: e)

13. Answer: b)

14. Answer: d)

15. Answer: c)

Explanation for 11-15: The proper sequence of sentences to make a meaningful paragraph will be ‘EADBC’:

1) The work in microeconomic theory for which Oliver Hart and Bengt Holmström have received this year’s Economics Nobel Prize goes back to the 1970s and 1980s when the foundations of contract theory were being firmed up.

2) Their work has provided economists the tools to understand interactions between entities in a range of fields, such as the design of performance incentives in firms and schools, corporate governance, privatization, constitutional law, and entrepreneur-investor relationships.

3) The Royal Swedish Academy of Sciences highlighted that their contributions to understanding “real-life contracts and institutions, as well as the pitfalls when designing new contracts” were crucial.

4) Mr. Holmström, in 1979, published a theoretical model and result that significantly enhanced the understanding of risk and incentives in employer-employee relationships.

5) This was called the informativeness principle, which said performance should be linked to all variables, or outcomes that provide information on the actions taken by an agent, such as a firm’s manager, and not just the outcomes she can affect.

16. Answer: c)

Explanation: As per the meaning of the sentence, the word ‘Diplomacy’ which means the activity or skill of managing international relations, typically by a country’s representatives abroad, fits in the blanks.

17. Answer: d)

Explanation: FCNR (B) Accounts stands for Foreign Currency Non Resident (Bank) account.

18. Answer: b)

Explanation: As per the meaning of the sentence, the word ‘Stabilizing’ which means a situation to keep from fluctuating or put into equilibrium; fits in the blanks.

19. Answer: d)

Explanation: As per the meaning of the sentence, the word ‘Imposed’ which means requiring a duty, charge, or penalty to be undertaken or paid, fits in the blanks.

20. Answer: a)

Explanation: As per the meaning of the sentence, the word ‘Redressal’ which means an act of correcting an error or a fault, fits in the blanks.

21. Answer: c)

Explanation: The appropriate word should be ‘production’ which means the action of making or manufacturing from components or raw materials, or the process of being so manufactured.

22. Answer: d)

Explanation: The appropriate word should be ‘manufacturing’ which means the process of converting raw materials, components, or parts into finished goods.

23. Answer: b)

Explanation: The appropriate word should be ‘sellers’ which means someone who exchanges goods or services for money.

24. Answer: c)

Explanation: The appropriate word should be ‘levies’ which means imposing a tax or fee.

25. Answer: d)

Explanation: The appropriate word should be ‘Integrated’ which means to combine two or more things to make something more effective.

26. Answer: c)

Explanation: Replace ‘is learning’ by ‘learnt’.

27. Answer: d)

Explanation: Replace ‘can you’re with ‘will you’.

28. Answer: b)

Explanation: Replace ‘I am studying’ with ‘I have been studying’.

29. Answer c)

Explanation: Replace ‘those in’ with ‘those of’.

30. Answer e)

Explanation: There is no grammatical error in the sentence.

ALL THE BEST!